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UPSC Prelims Indian Polity PYQs – Topic-wise MCQs | Study Indepth

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions on Indian Polity covering Central Council of Ministers, Anti-Defection Law, Panchayati Raj, Attorney General, Fifth and Sixth Schedule, Major Amendments, and Constitutional Bodies. These questions are highly useful for UPSC CSE, CAPF-AC, CDS, State PCS and other competitive examinations.

UPSC Prelims Indian Polity Previous Year Questions covering Council of Ministers, Anti-Defection Law, Panchayati Raj, Attorney General, Constitutional Bodies

Prepared by Study Indepth | UPSC • CAPF-AC • CDS Preparation

CENTRAL COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

1. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANTI-DEFECTION LAW

2. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

PANCHAYATI RAJ

3. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2016

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in UPSC 2017
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
5. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? UPSC 2015

1. People's participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ATTORNEY GENERAL

6. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

FIFTH AND SIXTH SCHEDULE

7. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? UPSC 2022
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-government in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
8. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to UPSC 2015
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the minorities

MAJOR AMENDMENTS

9. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2019

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? UPSC 2017
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

CONSTITUTIONAL AND NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

11. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: UPSC 2023

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
12. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2017

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
13. Consider the following: UPSC 2023

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

4. Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
14. With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? UPSC 2015

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent

2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the UPSC 2015
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission

MISCELLANEOUS

16. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.

2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.

3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
17. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: UPSC 2023
Action The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorised wearing of police or military uniforms The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading of otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
18. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
19. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002: UPSC 2023

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm × 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
20. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is UPSC 2020
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism
21. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the UPSC 2015
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
22. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? UPSC 2022

1. CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in Government of India.

2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks.

3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.

4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
23. With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
24. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2016

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.

2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2015

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? UPSC 2014

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees

3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? UPSC 2021
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

📘 Related Polity Content:
Complete UPSC Indian Polity PYQs (Topic-wise)

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