UPSC Prelims Indian Polity PYQs (2014–2023) | Centre-State Relations, Judiciary, Emergency & President–Governor

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions on Indian Polity covering Centre-State Relations, Emergency Provisions, President and Governor, Judiciary, and Constitutional aspects. These questions are highly useful for UPSC CSE, CAPF-AC, CDS, State PCS and other competitive examinations.

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CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS

1. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? UPSC 2019

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

EMERGENCY PROVISIONS

2. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.

3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

3. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? UPSC 2017

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then UPSC 2018

(a) The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved

(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state

(d) The President can make laws relating to that State

PRESIDENT AND GOVERNOR

5. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

6. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: UPSC 2023

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.

3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

7. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2018

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.

2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2018

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? UPSC 2014

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule

2. Appointing the Ministers

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

JUDICIARY

10. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? UPSC 2023

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

11. With reference to India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements: UPSC 2021

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.

2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? UPSC 2020

1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000

2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000

3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000

4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

14. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2020

1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.

2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2019

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

16. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? UPSC 2019

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament

(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature

17. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2019

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. With reference to the 'Gram Nyayalaya Act', which of the following statements is/are correct? UPSC 2016

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India? UPSC 2015

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

(d) The Supreme Court of India

20. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in UPSC 2014

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) the Law Commission

21. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its UPSC 2014

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction

(c) original jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

AMENDMENT PROCEDURE

22. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? UPSC 2023

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

23. Consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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